Do you guys know the bible verses that the evangelicals use to claim that marriage is only between a man and a woman? Or is it from some vague interpretation that organized church uses to control others. Great job dudes. Please keep up the good work, it is really appreciated.
Posted: June 23rd 2009
SmartLX www
There are plenty of anti-gay statements in the Bible. “Romans 1”:http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Romans%201&version=9; condemns gay and lesbian behaviour pretty heavily, for one example. (Scroll down to 26-27.)
However, condemning homosexuality isn’t the same as declaring marriage to be the union of a man and a woman. That phrase is not paraphrased from any Bible passage. Such an outright declaration is never made as far as I can find.
If anything there’s a declaration by omission; all marriages mentioned in the Bible are between a man and a woman (or, sometimes, multiple women). Gay marriage is never even discussed. The conservative practice among Christians, given the more general condemnations of homosexuality, is to consider the lack of endorsement more important than the lack of specific prohibition.
Posted: June 24th 2009
George Ricker www
The passage that most often gets pointed to by evangelicals is Leviticus 18:22 in which “the Lord” supposedly “spake unto Moses, saying …” “Thou shalt not lie with mankind, as with womankind: it is an abomination.” Later in Leviticus 20:13, the “Lord” makes a capital offense of the abomination when he declares, “If a man also lie with mankind, as with a woman, both of them have committed an abomination: they shall surely be put to death; their blood shall be upon them.”
It’s worth noting that, earlier in Leviticus (11: 10-12), “the Lord” had declared eating shellfish to be an abomination as well.
In the first chapter of the first letter to Timothy, which is attributed to the apostle Paul, the author rails against those who “defile themselves with mankind.” This is generally taken to be a reference to homosexuality.
So there is some basis for arguing that a biblical view of morality justifies hostility toward homosexuality.
However, for anyone who has actually read the book, the more important question is “how can anyone justify basing a moral code on it?” The Bible is a terrible guide to human morality. For centuries it was used to justify the suppression of women, the keeping of slaves, the abuse of children and the divine rights of kings. Why would anyone think it worthwhile to attempt to apply Bronze Age morality in a modern industrial society?
Posted: June 24th 2009